Sample Paper for MBA Entry Test
PART 1: QUANTITATIVE/MATHEMATICAL ABILITY
1. 2 + 2 x 2 =?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 10
2. A chemist was preparing a solution that should have included 35 milligrams of a chemical. If
she actually used 36.4 milligrams, what was her percentage error?
(A) 0.04%
(B) 0.05%
(C) 1.40%
(D) 3.85%
(E) 4.00%
3. 200² - 2(200)(199) + 199² = ?
(A) -79.291
(B) -200
(C) 1
(D) 200
(E) 79.999
PART 2: VERBAL ABILITY
1. Nosheen has enrolled in a cooking course as a way of indulging her _________ the art of food.
(A) dislike for
(B) love for
(C) indifference for
(D) need for
(E) abstinence from
2. Unseasonable weather in the months before a wine harvest can cool vineyards in the Bordeaux
region enough to affect the overall size of the grapes themselves create unwanted moisture that
can cause mold in some grape varieties and deterioration in others.
(A) to affect the overall size of the grapes themselves, create
(B) to affect the overall size of the grapes themselves, and create
(C) that the overall size of the grapes themselves are affected, create
(D) that is affects the overall size of the grapes themselves, creates
(E) that the size of the grapes are affected and creates
3. The teacher suspected cheating as soon as he noticed the pupil’s __________ glances at
his classmate’s paper.
a. futile
b. sporadic
c. furtive
d. cold
e. inconsequential
PART 3: READING COMPREHENSION
LIFE IN OUR SOLAR SYSTEM
Although we can imagine life based on something other than carbon chemistry, we know
of no examples to tell us how such life might arise and survive. We must limit our
discussion to life as we know it and the conditions it requires. The most important
requirement is the presence of liquid water, not only as part of the chemical reactions of
life but also as a medium to transport nutrients and wastes within the organism.
1. The word automatically in the passage is closest in meaning to:
(A) Partially
(B) Actually
(C) Occasionally
(D) Naturally
(E) Really
SECTION I – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION
1. Which of the following is the most effective way to encourage ethical behavior in your organization.
a. Clearly laying out expected behavior in a written policy or code of ethics
b. Making sure top management set clear examples of ethical behavior
c. Punishing those who act unethically
d. None of the above
correct answer: a
SECTION II – FINANCE AND ACCOUNTING
1. Legitimate measures taken by management to make a business look as strong as possible at the balance sheet date is called:
a. Objectivity Principle
b. Window dressing
c. Cost Principle
d. None of the above
correct answer: d
2. DuPont Analysis is the combination of the following two ratios:
a. Profit Margin x Total Asset T/O
b. Profit Margin x Current Asset T/O
c. Net Income x Fixed Asset T/O
d. None of the above
correct answer: d
SECTION III – MANAGEMENT
1. Management is a function of planning, organizing, controlling leading, and staffing.
a. Management is function of activities and tasks
b. Management is doing things according to rules and regulations
c. Management is just leading
d. None of the above
correct answer: a
SECTION IV – ECONOMICS
1. A vertical supply curve may be described as:
a. Relatively price elastic
b. Perfectly price inelastic
c. Relatively price inelastic
d. None of the above
correct answer: b
SECTION V - MARKETING
1. Cognitive dissonance refers to:
a. Poor musical performance
b. Pavlov’s Nobel winning discovery
c. May be having to say "I am sorry I did it"
d. None of the above
correct answer: c
SECTION VI – MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS
1. A Karachi city police department is contemplating the purchase of an additional petrol car. Police analysts estimate the purchase cost of a fully equipped car (subcompact, but high powered) to be Rs 18,000. They also have estimated an average operating cost of Rs. 0.40 per kilometer. What are project total costs if the car is driven 50,000 miles during its lifetime?
a. Rs 58,000
b. Rs 48,000
c. Rs 38,000
d. None of the above
correct answer: c
2. A multiple-choice quiz has 200 questions, each with 4 possible answers, of which only 1 is the correct answer. What is the probability that sheer guesswork yields from 25 to 30 correct answers for 80 of the 200 problems about which the students has no knowledge?
a. 0.1090
b. 0.1196
c. 0.1086
d. None of the above
correct answer: d
SECTION VII – MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEMS
1. The popular term for the software component that supports the collaborative efforts of a team is
a. videoconferencing software
b. work flow automation software
c. groupware
d. none of above
correct answer: c
Entry Test for Post Graduate (SAMPLE)
Multiple Choice Questions
English Section
1. Eating, drinking, and __________ at night were among her pleasures.
A. to stay up late B. to remain up late C. staying up late D. she liked staying up late
2. I think I‟ll keep my coat, on I‟m feeling a bit _______________.
A. Chile
B. Chilli
C. Chilly
D. Chillee
3. Quebec____________ the St. Lawrence River.
A. rises in a magnificent way above
B. rises in a magnificent way, way above
C. rises magnificently above
D. rises magnificently way above
Comprehension
Every year since 1986, some of the world's most daring runners have gathered in the desert of Morocco. They are there to take part in one of the most difficult races in the world. The Marathon of the Sands, as it is called, covers over 125 miles of desert and mountain wilderness. The runners complete the course in fewer than seven days, and they run with their food, clothing, and sleeping bags on their backs.
The Marathon of the Sands was founded in 1986 by Patrick Bauer. His idea was to give the runners, who come from all over the world, a special kind of adventure. Most of the runners in this race have found that they form deep friendships with the other runners during their days and nights in the desert. Facing terrible heat and complete exhaustion, they learn much about themselves and each other.
For most of the runners, though, the challenge of the race is the main reason for coming. On the first day, for example, they run fifteen miles across a desert of sand, rocks, and thorny bushes. Few runners finish the day without blistered and raw feet. They also suffer from a lack of water. (They are allowed less than nine quarts of water during each day of the race.) Most of all, they are exhausted when they arrive at the campsite for the night.
The second day, the runners are up at 6:00 A. M. Within a few hours, it is 100 degrees F, but the runners do not hesitate. They must cover eighteen miles that day. That night, they rest. They must be ready for the next day's run.
On the third day, the runners must climb giant sand dunes- the first they have faced. Dust and sand mix with the runners' sweat. Soon their faces are caked with mud. After fifteen miles of these conditions, the runners finally reach their next camp.
The race continues like this for four more days. The fourth and fifth days are the worst. On the fourth day, the runners pass through a level stretch and a beautiful, tree-filled oasis, but then, on this and on the next day, they cross more than twenty-one miles of rocks and sand dunes. The temperature soars to 125 degrees F, and many runners cannot make it. Helicopters rush fallen runners to medical help. Runners who make it to the end of the fifth day know that the worst is over.
On the sixth day, heat and rocks punish the racers terribly. In the Valley of Dra, the wind picks up and, as the desert heat is thrust against them with great force, they grow more and more exhausted.
The seventh day is the last, with only twelve miles to be covered. The dusty, tired, blistered runners set out at daybreak. Near the finish line, children race along with the runners, for everybody has caught the excitement. The ones who have run the whole marathon know they have accomplished what most people could not even dream of. “During the hard moments,” says one contestant who has raced here twice, “I'd think, „Why am I here?' Then I'd realize I was there to find my limits.”
What is the main idea of this passage?
A. The Marathon of the Sands race tests the limits of human endurance.
B. The runners run at their own pace.
C. The race causes the strong to stumble and the weak to not finish.
D. The seventh day is the hardest day of the race.
Essay Writing
TO WHAT EXTENT HAS THE TRADITIONAL MALE ROLE CHANGED IN THE LAST 20 YEARS?
Mathematics Section
1. Employees of a discount appliance store receive an additional 20% off of the lowest price on an item. If an employee purchases a dishwasher during a 15% off sale, how much will he pay if the dishwasher originally cost $450?
A. $280.90 B. $287 C. $292.50 D. $306
2. Jim can fill a pool carrying buckets of water in 30 minutes. Sue can do the same job in 45 minutes. Tony can do the same job in 1 ½ hours. How quickly can all three fill the pool together?
A. 12 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 21 minutes D. 23 minutes
3. What is the area of the triangle below?
A. 22 cm2 B. 33 cm2 C. 44 cm2 D. 50 cm2
General Knowledge Section
1. How many continents are there in the world?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
2. A great deal of CO2 production is the result of traffic ___________
A. Obstruction
B. Jamming
C. Overcrowding
D. Congestion
3. Who is the current Prime Minister of U.K.?
A. Tony Blair
B. Barack Hussein Obama
C. Gordon Brown
D. Prince Charles
Computer Section
1. Who is known as father of Computer?
A. Charles Babbage
B. Newton
C. Einstein
D. Grham Bell
2. WWW means ______?
A. World Wide Wrestling
B. World Wide Web
C. World‟s Word Web
D. World Wide Watch
3. The main storage is another name of_________?
A. Primary Storage
B. Secondary Storage
C. C++ Storage
D. None of the above
MBA (Life Sciences) Sample paper
Entry Test
Quantitative Section
Q. No. 1: If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width is decreased
by 20% then the area:
a) Decreases by 20%
b) Decreases by 4%
c) Stays the same
d) Increases by 10%
e) Increases by 20%
Q. No. 2: .03 times .05 is
a) 15%
b) 1.5%
c) .15%
d) .015%
e) .0015%
Q. No. 3: Direction: Each of the following problems has a question and two statements
which are labeled (1) and (2). Use the data given in (1) and (2) together with other
available information (such as the number of hours in a day, the definition of
clockwise, mathematical facts, ets.) to decide whether the statements are sufficient
to answer the question. Then fill in space
a) If you can get the answer from (1) ALONE but not from (2) alone
b) If you can get the answer from (2) ALONE but not from (1) alone
c) If you can get the answer from BOTH (1) and (2) TOGETHER, but not
from (1) alone or (2) alone
d) If EITEHER statement (1) ALONE OR statement (2) ALONE suffices
e) If you CANNOT get the answer from statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER,
but need even more data
All numbers used in this section are real numbers. A figure given for a
problem is intended to provide information consistent with that in the question,
but not necessarily with the additional information contained in the statements.
A piece of wood 5 feet long is cut into three smaller pieces. How long is the
longest of the three pieces?
1) One piece is 2 feet 7 inches long
2) One piece is 7 inches longer than another piece and the remaining piece is
5 inches long.
Verbal Section
Q. No. 1: In winning its bitter, protracted battle to acquire Blue Industries, Inc., Belle
Industries has fulfilled its goal to lessen its reliance on tobacco holdings,
while the $ 5.2 billion deal may spur more takeover activity in the insurance
industry, analysts said.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) Blue Industries is in the tobacco industry.
b) Belle Industries is in the insurance business.
c) Blue Industries is in the insurance business.
d) More divestment takes place in the tobacco industry than in the
insurance industry.
e) More divestment takes place in the insurance industry than in the
tobacco industry.
Q. No. 2: The principal reason for our failure was quite apparent to those whom we
had brought into the venture.
a) To those whom we had brought
b) To them whom we had brought
c) To the ones whom we had bought
d) To those who we had brought
e) To those who we had brung
Q. No. 3: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given at its end:
Something is radically wrong with the entire structure of human relationship
that makes man delight in killing man, whether it be in the name of
civilization or religion or anything else. Two wrongs do not make a right,
hatred must beget hatred. It is this fundamental truth that women have got to
bring home to the people in their respective countries. No peace treaties can
avail that have revenge as their basis and self righteous arrogance and
hypocrisy in the so called victors. But women are the natural preservers of
life.
i. Which of the following expresses most accurately the idea contained in the
opening sentence of the passage?
a) Man destroying another man is a painful practice.
b) A social structure that permits people to kill each other for religion
is inherently rotten.
c) It is strange that one religion encourages its followers to kill the
followers of another religion.
d) It is wrong on man’s part to derive pleasure out of killing other for
any motive whatsoever.
ii. The expression “Two wrongs do not make a right’ means that:
a) A wrong action in retaliation does not mend matters.
b) Hatred destroys the person who perpetrates it.
c) A tit for tat policy aggravates hatred.
d) Even repeated assertions of a wrong statement do not make it right.
iii. Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage?
a) It is human tendency to kill others professing different religion.
b) It is the duty of women to foster peace and harmony amongst their
countrymen.
c) Peace treaties among nations tend to establish peace in the world.
d) If you hate someone, he is bound to respond with the same feeling.
Analytical Section/ General Knowledge
Q. No. 1: A builder will build five houses in New Housing Scheme on a
street that currently has no houses. The builder will select from
seven different models of houses L,M, N, O, P, Q and R. The
Development Authority has placed the following restrictions on the
builder: No model can be selected for more than one house. Eight
model) must be select or model R must be selected, but both cannot
be selected. I model Q is selected, then model N cannot be selected.
If model M is selected, then model O cannot be selected.
i. If model M is one of the models selected for the street, then which of
the following models must also be selected?
a) L
b) O
c) P
d) Q
e) R
ii. If L, M and P are three of the models selected for the street, then
which of the following must be the other tow models selected?
a) N and O
b) N and Q
c) N and R
d) O and Q
e) Q and R
iii. Which of the following is and acceptable combination of models that
can be selected for the street?
a) L, M, N, P, Q
b) L, M, P, Q, R
c) L, N, P, Q, R
d) M, N, O, P, Q
e) N, O, P, Q, R
iv. The model R is one model not selected for the street, then the other
model NOT selected must be which of the following?
a) L
b) M
c) N
d) O
e) P
Q. No. 2: Inflation means;
a) No room for unfit persons.
b) Bursting of anything
c) Filling air into a tyre of a vehicle
d) Abnormal rise in price.
Q. No. 3: The first constitution of Pakistan was announced on:
a) February 5, 1952
b) March 23, 1956
c) October 5, 1951
d) June 20, 1958.
ESSAY WRITING
In the analytical essay writing section, you will be tested in your ability to critically evaluate an issue and assess an argument. The purpose of the essay is to present your thoughts in a well thought-out manner, with precision. You will be judged on your ability to effectively communicate your thoughts in a lucid way while keeping in mind the main topic. The essay writing aims at assessing your command over the English language and your ability to correctly construct grammatically and structurally correct sentences.
Sample Questions:
SECTION: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. A director of the Apex Pharmaceutical Company argued that the development costs for new vaccines that the health department has requested should be subsidized by the government, since the marketing of vaccines promised to be less profitable than the marketing of any other pharmaceutical product. In support of this claim the director argued that sales of vaccines are likely to be lower since
each vaccine is administered to a patient only once, whereas medicines that combat diseases and chronic illnesses are administered many times to each patient.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the support offered by the company director for the claim concerning the marketing of vaccines?
(A) Vaccines are administered to many more people than are most other pharmaceutical products.
(B) Many of the diseases that vaccines are designed to prevent can be successfully treated by medicines.
(C) Pharmaceutical companies occasionally market products that are neither medicines nor vaccines.
(D) Pharmaceutical companies other than the Apex Pharmaceutical Company produce vaccines.
(E) The cost of administering a vaccine is rarely borne by the pharmaceutical company that manufactures that vaccine.
2. An ingredient in marijuana known as THC has been found to inactivate herpes viruses in experiments. In previous experiments researchers found that inactivated herpes viruses can convert healthy cells into cancer cells. It can be concluded that the use of marijuana can cause cancer.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
(A) Several teams of scientists performed the various experiments and all of the teams had similar results.
(B) The carcinogenic effect of THC could be neutralized by the other ingredients found in marijuana.
(C) When THC kills herpes viruses it weakens the immune system, and it might thus diminish the body’s ability to fight other viruses, including viruses linked to cancers.
(D) If chemists modify the structure of THC, THC can be safely incorporated into medications to prevent herpes.
(E) To lessen the undesirable side effects of chemotherapy, the use of marijuana has been recommended for cancer patients who are free of the herpes virus.
3. Archaeologist: A large corporation has recently offered to provide funding to restore an archaeological site and to construct facilities to make the site readily accessible to the general public. The restoration will conform to the best current theories about how the site appeared at the height of the ancient civilization that occupied it. This offer should be rejected, however, because many parts of the site contain unexamined evidence.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, justifies the archaeologist’s argument?
(A) The ownership of archaeological sites should not be under the control of business interests.
(B) Any restoration of an archaeological site should represent only the most ancient period of that site’s history.
(C) No one should make judgments about what constitutes the height of another civilization.
(D) Only those with a true concern for an archaeological site’s history should be involved in the restoration of that site.
(E) The risk of losing evidence relevant to possible future theories should outweigh any advantages of displaying the results of theories already developed.
4. We ought not to test the safety of new drugs on sentient animals, such as dogs and rabbits. Our benefit means their pain, and they are equal to us in the capacity to feel pain. G: We must carry out such tests; otherwise, we would irresponsibly sacrifice the human lives that could have been saved by the drugs.
Which of the following, if true, is the best objection that could be made from F's point of view to counter G's point?
(A) Even though it is not necessary for people to use cosmetics, cosmetics are also being tested on sentient animals.
(B) Medical science already has at its disposal a great number of drugs and other treatments for serious illnesses.
(C) It is not possible to obtain scientifically adequate results by testing drugs in the test tube, without making tests on living tissue.
(D) Some of the drugs to be tested would save human beings from great pain
(E) Many tests now performed on sentient animals can be performed equally well on fertilized chicken eggs that are at a very early stage of development.
5. The amount of time it takes for most of a worker's occupational knowledge and skills to become obsolete has been declining because of the introduction of advanced manufacturing technology (AMT). Given the rate at which AMT is currently being introduced in manufacturing, the average worker's old skills become obsolete and new skills are required within as little as five years.
Which of the following plans, if feasible, would allow a company to prepare most effectively for the rapid obsolescence of skills described above?
(A) The company will develop a program to offer selected employees the opportunity to receive training six years after they were originally hired.
(B) The company will increase its investment in AMT every year for a period of at least five years.
(C) The company will periodically survey its employees to determine how the introduction of AMT has affected them.
(D) Before the introduction of AMT, the company will institute an educational program to inform its employees
(E) The company will ensure that it can offer its employees any training necessary for meeting their job requirements.
This section also consists of a number of sentences, which are partially underlined. Each sentence is followed by five choices. The first choice (A) simply repeats the underlined part. The subsequent four choices suggest other ways to express the underlined part of the original sentence. Select one letter (from A through E) corresponding to the choice, which you consider the most correct and effective.
Grammar, sentence structure, word usage and punctuation are to be considered in your decisions, regardless of which choice you make the original meaning of the sentence must be retained.
6. The Black Hole in space has entered the popular imagination as an object too massive that neither light nor matter can escape its gravitational pull.
(A) too massive that neither light nor matter can escape its
(B) too massive for either allowing light or matter to escape its
(C) massive enough that either light or matter cannot escape their
(D) so massive that neither light nor matter could escape their
(E) so massive that neither light nor matter can escape its
7. As rare as something becomes, be it a musical recording, sports trivia or a postage stamp, the more avidly it is sought by collectors.
(A) As rare as something becomes, be it
(B) As rare as something becomes, whether it is
(C) As something becomes rarer and rarer, like
(D) The rarer something becomes, like as
(E) The rarer something becomes, be it
8. What adults think and feel is determined as much by their early childhood peers as by their parents.
(A) is determined as much by their early childhood peers as by their
(B) are determined as much by peers in early childhood as do their
(C) are determined as much by their peers in early childhood than by their
(D) have been determined by childhood peers as much as their
(E) was determined as much by one’s peers in childhood as by one’s
9. To reduce rather than eliminate, corruption would require tremendous commitment and effort.
(A) To reduce rather than eliminate,
(B) To reduce and eliminate,
(C) To reduce, let alone eliminate,
(D) To reduce, as opposed to eliminate,
(E) To reduce, as well as eliminate,
10. Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability to making profitable investments in Pakistan, have been led to move from passive involvement in commercial partnerships to active development of their own increasingly ambitious projects.
(A) Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability to making profitable investments in Pakistan, have been led
(B) Foreign investors, growing confident about their capability for making profitable investments in Pakistan, had led them
(C) Growing confidence in their ability to make profitable investment in Pakistan has led foreign investors
(D) Growing confidence in their ability for making profitable investments in Pakistan have led foreign investors
(E) Growing confident about their capabilities for making profitable investment in Pakistan, foreign investors had been led
11. My younger brother insists that he is as tall as me.
(A) that he is as tall as me.
(B) that he is so tall as me.
(C) that he is tall as me.
(D) that he is as tall as I.
(E) he is as much tall as me.
12. It is so dark that I cannot hardly see.
(A) I cannot hardly see.
(B) I can hardly see.
(C) I cannot hardly see.
(D) I cannot see hardly.
(E) I can see hardly.
Reading comprehension is also a part of this section.
Directions: The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question from the five choices marked (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in your test book. Then fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
All questions should be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
Passage 1
Since the nineteenth century when rigorous studies of poverty began, researchers have tried to establish a fixed yardstick against which to measure poverty. Ideally, such a yardstick would be applicable to all societies and should establish a fixed level, usually known as the poverty line, below which poverty begins and above which it ends. This concept of poverty is known as absolute poverty. It usually involves a judgment of basic human needs and is measured in terms of the resources required to maintain health and physical efficiency. Most measures of absolute poverty are concerned with establishing the quality and amount of food, clothing, and shelter deemed necessary for a healthy life.
Absolute poverty is often known as subsistence poverty since it is based on assessments of minimum
subsistence requirements. It is usually measured by pricing the basic necessities of life, drawing a poverty line in terms of this price, and defining those as poor whose income falls below that figure.
There have been many attempts to define and operationalise - put into a form, which can be measured - the concept of absolute poverty. For example Drewnowski and Scott in their “Level of Living Index,” define and operationalise basic physical needs in the following way: nutrition, measured by factors such as intake of calories and protein; shelter, measured by quality of dwelling and degree of overcrowding; and health, measured by factors such as the rate of infant mortality and the quality of available medical facilities.
Some concepts of poverty go beyond the notion of subsistence poverty by introducing the idea of “basic cultural needs.” This broadens the idea of basic human needs beyond the level of physical survival. Drewnowski and Scott include education, security, leisure and recreation in their category of basic cultural needs. The proportion of children enrolled at school is one indication of the level of educational provision; the number of violent deaths relative to the size of the population is one indication of security; and the amount of leisure relative to work time is one measure of the standard of leisure and recreation.
The concept of absolute poverty has been widely criticized. It is based on the assumption that there are minimum basic needs for all people, in all societies. This is a difficult argument to defend even in regard to subsistence poverty measured in terms of food, clothing and shelter. Such needs vary both between and within societies. Thus Peter Townsend argues, “It would be difficult to define nutritional needs without taking account of the kinds and demands of occupations and of leisure time pursuits in a society.” For example, the nutritional needs of the nomadic hunters and gatherers of the Kalahari Desert in Africa may well be very different from those of members of Western society. Within the same society, nutritional needs may vary widely, between, for example, the bank clerk sitting at his desk all day and the laborer on a building site. A similar criticism can be made of attempts to define absolute standards of shelter. Jack and Janet Roach give the following illustrations: “City living,” for example, requires that “adequate” shelter not only protects one from the elements, but that it does not present a fire hazard to others and that attention be paid to water supplies, sewage and garbage disposal. These problems are simply met in rural situations. Thus flush toilets, which may well be considered a necessary part of adequate shelter in the city, could hardly be considered essential fixtures in the dwellings of traditional hunting and gathering, and agricultural societies.
The concept of absolute poverty is even more difficult to defend when it is broadened to include the idea of “basic cultural need.” Such “needs” vary from time to time and place to place and any attempt to establish absolute, fixed standards is bound to fail. Drewnowski and Scotts basic cultural need of security is a case in point. Financial security for aged members of the working class in nineteenth-century England involved younger relatives providing for them, whereas, today it is largely met by state old age pensions and private insurance schemes. Increasing longevity, reductions in the size of families, and earlier retirement have altered the circumstances of the aged. Definitions of adequate provision for old age have changed since the last century. Thus, in terms of security, both the situation and expectations of the aged in England have changed and are not strictly comparable over time. A similar criticism can be applied to attempts to apply absolute standards to two or more societies. For instance, recreational and leisure provision in the West may be measured in terms of the number of televisions, cinemas, parks and playing fields per head of the population. However, the concept of leisure on which this is based and the items in terms of which it is measured may be largely irrelevant for other societies. For example, the Hopi and Zuni Indians of the Southwestern USA have an elaborate ceremonial life, which forms the central theme of their leisure activities.
Recreational needs are therefore largely determined by the culture of the particular society. Any absolute standard of cultural needs is based in part of the values of the researcher, which to some degree reflect his particular culture. Peter Townsend notes that when societies are compared in terms of recreational facilities, “Cinema attendance and ownership of radios take precedence over measures of direct participation in cultural events,” such as religious rituals and other ceremonies. This is a clear illustration of Western bias.
13. What is the writer’s main intention in the first paragraph?
(A) to compare absolute poverty with subsistence poverty
(B) to describe various interpretations of the poverty line
(C) to introduce various ways in which poverty can be measured
(D) to suggest a clear definition of poverty
(E) to introduce the concept of absolute poverty
14. The “Level of Living Index” described in paragraph 2
(A) contradicts the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
(B) questions the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
(C) establishes the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
(D) amplifies the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
(E) has no connection with the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
15. What is the primary purpose of the 3rd paragraph?
(A) It serves as a summary of the preceding two paragraphs.
(B) It counter balances the existing discussion.
(C) It justifies the writer’s main contention.
(D) It extends the definitions introduced in the preceding two paragraphs.
(E) It negates the concepts introduced in the preceding two paragraphs.
16. According to the text, what is the main criticism leveled against the concept of absolute poverty?
(A) It is impossible to measure people’s basic needs.
(B) One cannot assume people share the same basic needs.
(C) One cannot formulate any comprehensive definition of absolute poverty.
(D) It is impossible to describe the needs of different societies.
(E) Absolute poverty should be avoided.
17. According to the writer, all the following have primarily contributed to the change in situation and expectations of the aged EXCEPT:
(A) Longer life expectancies
(B) Smaller family systems
(C) More recreational opportunities
(D) Earlier retirement age
(E) Financial security through pensions and insurance
SECTION: MATHEMATICS
Directions: While solving problems you can use any available space on the page for scratch work. For each question in this section, read the five choices marked (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in your test book. Select the letter of the choice, which you consider is the correct answer. Then fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: Figures that accompany problems are intended to provide information useful for solving the problems. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that it is not drawn to scale. All Figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
1. If each of four numbers is tripled, their average is multiplied by
(A) 12
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 9
(E) 81
2. Solve for y: 2x + y = 4
3x - 2y = -1
(A) y = 1
(B) y = 2
(C) y = 3
(D) y = 4
(E) y = 6
3. Solution X is 15% salt and the rest is water. Solution Y is 8% salt and the rest is water. How many litres of solution X need to be added to 5 litres of solution Y to make a solution that is 10% salt?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 4
(E) 2
4. A person purchased 5 tables for Rs 3,600 each and 7 tables for Rs 4,000 each. He then sold all the tables for Rs 64,400. What was the percentage profit he made on the total sum he paid for all the tables?
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 35%
(D) 45%
(E) 40%
5. A cyclist completed5 laps of a circular track in one hour. If his average speed was 20 miles per hour, what is the diameter of the track?
(A) 2π
(B) 4π
(C) 4/π
(D) 2/π
(E) π /4
6. The slope of the line 3y = 6x - 11 is
(A) 11/3
(B) -11/3
(C) -2
(D) 2
(E) 6
7. ABCD is a square
If the area of the triangle BDE is 8 what is the area of the square ABCD?
(A) 8
(B) 82
(C) 16
(D) 4
(E) 22
This section can also have the following type of questions:
Directions: While solving problems you can use any available space on the page for scratch work. For each question in this section, the two statements are labeled option 1 and option 2. Use the data given in option1 and option 2 to determine;
(A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
(B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
(C) Both statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement is sufficient alone.
(D) Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(E) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data is needed to answer the statements.
8. Rabia took a test where there were two types of questions, type I and type II. 2 points were awarded for getting a type I question correct. 5 points were awarded for getting a type II question correct, and there is no penalty for getting questions wrong. How many type I questions did she answer correctly?
(1) She answered 11 questions correctly.
(2) She was awarded 43 points.
9. n' is a natural number. State whether n (n² - 1) is divisible by 24.
(1) 3 divides 'n' completely without leaving any remainder.
(2) 'n' is odd.
10. Bags I, II and III together have ten balls. If each bag contains at least one ball, how many balls does each bag have?
(1) Bag I contains five balls more than box III.
(2) Bag II contains half as many balls as bag I.
11. Given that side AC of triangle ABC is 2. Find the length of BC.
(1) AB is not equal to AC
(2) Angle B is 30 degrees.
12. Does every bird fly?
(1) Lions can fly
(2) Hens can fly.
SECTION: ESSAY WRITING
Directions: Make sure your thoughts are logical and well presented in an organized manner. The essay should have grammatically and structurally correct. Correct usage of English language should be considered. The essay should not exceed the provided space. Essays that are illegible and deviate from the topic assigned will not be graded.
1. The following appeared in a memorandum from the Director of Marketing for a Pharmaceutical Company:
“According to a survey based on a sample of 5,000 urban residents, the prevalence of stress headaches increases with educational level thus implied that stress headaches occur most frequently among people with graduate-school degrees. It is well established that nationally, higher educational levels usually correspond with higher levels of income. Therefore, in marketing our new pain remedy, Pain-Relief, we should send free samples primarily to graduate students and to people with graduate degrees and we should concentrate on advertising in professional journals rather than in general interest magazines.”
Critically evaluate the logic presented in the above argument. Your analysis should be strongly supported by the context provided and should be well reasoned and plausibly presented. Make sure that your writing is legible. The focus of the topic should be kept in mind and deviations from main topic should be avoided.
2. “Scientists are continually redefining the standards for what is beneficial or harmful to the environment. Since these standards keep shifting, companies should resist changing their products and processes in response to each new recommendation until those recommendations become government regulations.”
Explain the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion presented above. You have to give substantial evidence for or against your argument while evaluating the issue. You may use your own experiences, observations and reading as evidence in this regard.
ANSWERS TO THE SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Section: English
1. A
2. B
3. E
4. E
5. E
6. E
7. E
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. E
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. C
Section: Mathematics
1. B
2. B
3. E
4. E
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. E
12. E
PART 1: QUANTITATIVE/MATHEMATICAL ABILITY
1. 2 + 2 x 2 =?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 10
2. A chemist was preparing a solution that should have included 35 milligrams of a chemical. If
she actually used 36.4 milligrams, what was her percentage error?
(A) 0.04%
(B) 0.05%
(C) 1.40%
(D) 3.85%
(E) 4.00%
3. 200² - 2(200)(199) + 199² = ?
(A) -79.291
(B) -200
(C) 1
(D) 200
(E) 79.999
PART 2: VERBAL ABILITY
1. Nosheen has enrolled in a cooking course as a way of indulging her _________ the art of food.
(A) dislike for
(B) love for
(C) indifference for
(D) need for
(E) abstinence from
2. Unseasonable weather in the months before a wine harvest can cool vineyards in the Bordeaux
region enough to affect the overall size of the grapes themselves create unwanted moisture that
can cause mold in some grape varieties and deterioration in others.
(A) to affect the overall size of the grapes themselves, create
(B) to affect the overall size of the grapes themselves, and create
(C) that the overall size of the grapes themselves are affected, create
(D) that is affects the overall size of the grapes themselves, creates
(E) that the size of the grapes are affected and creates
3. The teacher suspected cheating as soon as he noticed the pupil’s __________ glances at
his classmate’s paper.
a. futile
b. sporadic
c. furtive
d. cold
e. inconsequential
PART 3: READING COMPREHENSION
LIFE IN OUR SOLAR SYSTEM
Although we can imagine life based on something other than carbon chemistry, we know
of no examples to tell us how such life might arise and survive. We must limit our
discussion to life as we know it and the conditions it requires. The most important
requirement is the presence of liquid water, not only as part of the chemical reactions of
life but also as a medium to transport nutrients and wastes within the organism.
1. The word automatically in the passage is closest in meaning to:
(A) Partially
(B) Actually
(C) Occasionally
(D) Naturally
(E) Really
SECTION I – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION
1. Which of the following is the most effective way to encourage ethical behavior in your organization.
a. Clearly laying out expected behavior in a written policy or code of ethics
b. Making sure top management set clear examples of ethical behavior
c. Punishing those who act unethically
d. None of the above
correct answer: a
SECTION II – FINANCE AND ACCOUNTING
1. Legitimate measures taken by management to make a business look as strong as possible at the balance sheet date is called:
a. Objectivity Principle
b. Window dressing
c. Cost Principle
d. None of the above
correct answer: d
2. DuPont Analysis is the combination of the following two ratios:
a. Profit Margin x Total Asset T/O
b. Profit Margin x Current Asset T/O
c. Net Income x Fixed Asset T/O
d. None of the above
correct answer: d
SECTION III – MANAGEMENT
1. Management is a function of planning, organizing, controlling leading, and staffing.
a. Management is function of activities and tasks
b. Management is doing things according to rules and regulations
c. Management is just leading
d. None of the above
correct answer: a
SECTION IV – ECONOMICS
1. A vertical supply curve may be described as:
a. Relatively price elastic
b. Perfectly price inelastic
c. Relatively price inelastic
d. None of the above
correct answer: b
SECTION V - MARKETING
1. Cognitive dissonance refers to:
a. Poor musical performance
b. Pavlov’s Nobel winning discovery
c. May be having to say "I am sorry I did it"
d. None of the above
correct answer: c
SECTION VI – MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS
1. A Karachi city police department is contemplating the purchase of an additional petrol car. Police analysts estimate the purchase cost of a fully equipped car (subcompact, but high powered) to be Rs 18,000. They also have estimated an average operating cost of Rs. 0.40 per kilometer. What are project total costs if the car is driven 50,000 miles during its lifetime?
a. Rs 58,000
b. Rs 48,000
c. Rs 38,000
d. None of the above
correct answer: c
2. A multiple-choice quiz has 200 questions, each with 4 possible answers, of which only 1 is the correct answer. What is the probability that sheer guesswork yields from 25 to 30 correct answers for 80 of the 200 problems about which the students has no knowledge?
a. 0.1090
b. 0.1196
c. 0.1086
d. None of the above
correct answer: d
SECTION VII – MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEMS
1. The popular term for the software component that supports the collaborative efforts of a team is
a. videoconferencing software
b. work flow automation software
c. groupware
d. none of above
correct answer: c
Entry Test for Post Graduate (SAMPLE)
Multiple Choice Questions
English Section
1. Eating, drinking, and __________ at night were among her pleasures.
A. to stay up late B. to remain up late C. staying up late D. she liked staying up late
2. I think I‟ll keep my coat, on I‟m feeling a bit _______________.
A. Chile
B. Chilli
C. Chilly
D. Chillee
3. Quebec____________ the St. Lawrence River.
A. rises in a magnificent way above
B. rises in a magnificent way, way above
C. rises magnificently above
D. rises magnificently way above
Comprehension
Every year since 1986, some of the world's most daring runners have gathered in the desert of Morocco. They are there to take part in one of the most difficult races in the world. The Marathon of the Sands, as it is called, covers over 125 miles of desert and mountain wilderness. The runners complete the course in fewer than seven days, and they run with their food, clothing, and sleeping bags on their backs.
The Marathon of the Sands was founded in 1986 by Patrick Bauer. His idea was to give the runners, who come from all over the world, a special kind of adventure. Most of the runners in this race have found that they form deep friendships with the other runners during their days and nights in the desert. Facing terrible heat and complete exhaustion, they learn much about themselves and each other.
For most of the runners, though, the challenge of the race is the main reason for coming. On the first day, for example, they run fifteen miles across a desert of sand, rocks, and thorny bushes. Few runners finish the day without blistered and raw feet. They also suffer from a lack of water. (They are allowed less than nine quarts of water during each day of the race.) Most of all, they are exhausted when they arrive at the campsite for the night.
The second day, the runners are up at 6:00 A. M. Within a few hours, it is 100 degrees F, but the runners do not hesitate. They must cover eighteen miles that day. That night, they rest. They must be ready for the next day's run.
On the third day, the runners must climb giant sand dunes- the first they have faced. Dust and sand mix with the runners' sweat. Soon their faces are caked with mud. After fifteen miles of these conditions, the runners finally reach their next camp.
The race continues like this for four more days. The fourth and fifth days are the worst. On the fourth day, the runners pass through a level stretch and a beautiful, tree-filled oasis, but then, on this and on the next day, they cross more than twenty-one miles of rocks and sand dunes. The temperature soars to 125 degrees F, and many runners cannot make it. Helicopters rush fallen runners to medical help. Runners who make it to the end of the fifth day know that the worst is over.
On the sixth day, heat and rocks punish the racers terribly. In the Valley of Dra, the wind picks up and, as the desert heat is thrust against them with great force, they grow more and more exhausted.
The seventh day is the last, with only twelve miles to be covered. The dusty, tired, blistered runners set out at daybreak. Near the finish line, children race along with the runners, for everybody has caught the excitement. The ones who have run the whole marathon know they have accomplished what most people could not even dream of. “During the hard moments,” says one contestant who has raced here twice, “I'd think, „Why am I here?' Then I'd realize I was there to find my limits.”
What is the main idea of this passage?
A. The Marathon of the Sands race tests the limits of human endurance.
B. The runners run at their own pace.
C. The race causes the strong to stumble and the weak to not finish.
D. The seventh day is the hardest day of the race.
Essay Writing
TO WHAT EXTENT HAS THE TRADITIONAL MALE ROLE CHANGED IN THE LAST 20 YEARS?
Mathematics Section
1. Employees of a discount appliance store receive an additional 20% off of the lowest price on an item. If an employee purchases a dishwasher during a 15% off sale, how much will he pay if the dishwasher originally cost $450?
A. $280.90 B. $287 C. $292.50 D. $306
2. Jim can fill a pool carrying buckets of water in 30 minutes. Sue can do the same job in 45 minutes. Tony can do the same job in 1 ½ hours. How quickly can all three fill the pool together?
A. 12 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 21 minutes D. 23 minutes
3. What is the area of the triangle below?
A. 22 cm2 B. 33 cm2 C. 44 cm2 D. 50 cm2
General Knowledge Section
1. How many continents are there in the world?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
2. A great deal of CO2 production is the result of traffic ___________
A. Obstruction
B. Jamming
C. Overcrowding
D. Congestion
3. Who is the current Prime Minister of U.K.?
A. Tony Blair
B. Barack Hussein Obama
C. Gordon Brown
D. Prince Charles
Computer Section
1. Who is known as father of Computer?
A. Charles Babbage
B. Newton
C. Einstein
D. Grham Bell
2. WWW means ______?
A. World Wide Wrestling
B. World Wide Web
C. World‟s Word Web
D. World Wide Watch
3. The main storage is another name of_________?
A. Primary Storage
B. Secondary Storage
C. C++ Storage
D. None of the above
MBA (Life Sciences) Sample paper
Entry Test
Quantitative Section
Q. No. 1: If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width is decreased
by 20% then the area:
a) Decreases by 20%
b) Decreases by 4%
c) Stays the same
d) Increases by 10%
e) Increases by 20%
Q. No. 2: .03 times .05 is
a) 15%
b) 1.5%
c) .15%
d) .015%
e) .0015%
Q. No. 3: Direction: Each of the following problems has a question and two statements
which are labeled (1) and (2). Use the data given in (1) and (2) together with other
available information (such as the number of hours in a day, the definition of
clockwise, mathematical facts, ets.) to decide whether the statements are sufficient
to answer the question. Then fill in space
a) If you can get the answer from (1) ALONE but not from (2) alone
b) If you can get the answer from (2) ALONE but not from (1) alone
c) If you can get the answer from BOTH (1) and (2) TOGETHER, but not
from (1) alone or (2) alone
d) If EITEHER statement (1) ALONE OR statement (2) ALONE suffices
e) If you CANNOT get the answer from statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER,
but need even more data
All numbers used in this section are real numbers. A figure given for a
problem is intended to provide information consistent with that in the question,
but not necessarily with the additional information contained in the statements.
A piece of wood 5 feet long is cut into three smaller pieces. How long is the
longest of the three pieces?
1) One piece is 2 feet 7 inches long
2) One piece is 7 inches longer than another piece and the remaining piece is
5 inches long.
Verbal Section
Q. No. 1: In winning its bitter, protracted battle to acquire Blue Industries, Inc., Belle
Industries has fulfilled its goal to lessen its reliance on tobacco holdings,
while the $ 5.2 billion deal may spur more takeover activity in the insurance
industry, analysts said.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) Blue Industries is in the tobacco industry.
b) Belle Industries is in the insurance business.
c) Blue Industries is in the insurance business.
d) More divestment takes place in the tobacco industry than in the
insurance industry.
e) More divestment takes place in the insurance industry than in the
tobacco industry.
Q. No. 2: The principal reason for our failure was quite apparent to those whom we
had brought into the venture.
a) To those whom we had brought
b) To them whom we had brought
c) To the ones whom we had bought
d) To those who we had brought
e) To those who we had brung
Q. No. 3: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given at its end:
Something is radically wrong with the entire structure of human relationship
that makes man delight in killing man, whether it be in the name of
civilization or religion or anything else. Two wrongs do not make a right,
hatred must beget hatred. It is this fundamental truth that women have got to
bring home to the people in their respective countries. No peace treaties can
avail that have revenge as their basis and self righteous arrogance and
hypocrisy in the so called victors. But women are the natural preservers of
life.
i. Which of the following expresses most accurately the idea contained in the
opening sentence of the passage?
a) Man destroying another man is a painful practice.
b) A social structure that permits people to kill each other for religion
is inherently rotten.
c) It is strange that one religion encourages its followers to kill the
followers of another religion.
d) It is wrong on man’s part to derive pleasure out of killing other for
any motive whatsoever.
ii. The expression “Two wrongs do not make a right’ means that:
a) A wrong action in retaliation does not mend matters.
b) Hatred destroys the person who perpetrates it.
c) A tit for tat policy aggravates hatred.
d) Even repeated assertions of a wrong statement do not make it right.
iii. Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage?
a) It is human tendency to kill others professing different religion.
b) It is the duty of women to foster peace and harmony amongst their
countrymen.
c) Peace treaties among nations tend to establish peace in the world.
d) If you hate someone, he is bound to respond with the same feeling.
Analytical Section/ General Knowledge
Q. No. 1: A builder will build five houses in New Housing Scheme on a
street that currently has no houses. The builder will select from
seven different models of houses L,M, N, O, P, Q and R. The
Development Authority has placed the following restrictions on the
builder: No model can be selected for more than one house. Eight
model) must be select or model R must be selected, but both cannot
be selected. I model Q is selected, then model N cannot be selected.
If model M is selected, then model O cannot be selected.
i. If model M is one of the models selected for the street, then which of
the following models must also be selected?
a) L
b) O
c) P
d) Q
e) R
ii. If L, M and P are three of the models selected for the street, then
which of the following must be the other tow models selected?
a) N and O
b) N and Q
c) N and R
d) O and Q
e) Q and R
iii. Which of the following is and acceptable combination of models that
can be selected for the street?
a) L, M, N, P, Q
b) L, M, P, Q, R
c) L, N, P, Q, R
d) M, N, O, P, Q
e) N, O, P, Q, R
iv. The model R is one model not selected for the street, then the other
model NOT selected must be which of the following?
a) L
b) M
c) N
d) O
e) P
Q. No. 2: Inflation means;
a) No room for unfit persons.
b) Bursting of anything
c) Filling air into a tyre of a vehicle
d) Abnormal rise in price.
Q. No. 3: The first constitution of Pakistan was announced on:
a) February 5, 1952
b) March 23, 1956
c) October 5, 1951
d) June 20, 1958.
ESSAY WRITING
In the analytical essay writing section, you will be tested in your ability to critically evaluate an issue and assess an argument. The purpose of the essay is to present your thoughts in a well thought-out manner, with precision. You will be judged on your ability to effectively communicate your thoughts in a lucid way while keeping in mind the main topic. The essay writing aims at assessing your command over the English language and your ability to correctly construct grammatically and structurally correct sentences.
Sample Questions:
SECTION: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. A director of the Apex Pharmaceutical Company argued that the development costs for new vaccines that the health department has requested should be subsidized by the government, since the marketing of vaccines promised to be less profitable than the marketing of any other pharmaceutical product. In support of this claim the director argued that sales of vaccines are likely to be lower since
each vaccine is administered to a patient only once, whereas medicines that combat diseases and chronic illnesses are administered many times to each patient.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the support offered by the company director for the claim concerning the marketing of vaccines?
(A) Vaccines are administered to many more people than are most other pharmaceutical products.
(B) Many of the diseases that vaccines are designed to prevent can be successfully treated by medicines.
(C) Pharmaceutical companies occasionally market products that are neither medicines nor vaccines.
(D) Pharmaceutical companies other than the Apex Pharmaceutical Company produce vaccines.
(E) The cost of administering a vaccine is rarely borne by the pharmaceutical company that manufactures that vaccine.
2. An ingredient in marijuana known as THC has been found to inactivate herpes viruses in experiments. In previous experiments researchers found that inactivated herpes viruses can convert healthy cells into cancer cells. It can be concluded that the use of marijuana can cause cancer.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
(A) Several teams of scientists performed the various experiments and all of the teams had similar results.
(B) The carcinogenic effect of THC could be neutralized by the other ingredients found in marijuana.
(C) When THC kills herpes viruses it weakens the immune system, and it might thus diminish the body’s ability to fight other viruses, including viruses linked to cancers.
(D) If chemists modify the structure of THC, THC can be safely incorporated into medications to prevent herpes.
(E) To lessen the undesirable side effects of chemotherapy, the use of marijuana has been recommended for cancer patients who are free of the herpes virus.
3. Archaeologist: A large corporation has recently offered to provide funding to restore an archaeological site and to construct facilities to make the site readily accessible to the general public. The restoration will conform to the best current theories about how the site appeared at the height of the ancient civilization that occupied it. This offer should be rejected, however, because many parts of the site contain unexamined evidence.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, justifies the archaeologist’s argument?
(A) The ownership of archaeological sites should not be under the control of business interests.
(B) Any restoration of an archaeological site should represent only the most ancient period of that site’s history.
(C) No one should make judgments about what constitutes the height of another civilization.
(D) Only those with a true concern for an archaeological site’s history should be involved in the restoration of that site.
(E) The risk of losing evidence relevant to possible future theories should outweigh any advantages of displaying the results of theories already developed.
4. We ought not to test the safety of new drugs on sentient animals, such as dogs and rabbits. Our benefit means their pain, and they are equal to us in the capacity to feel pain. G: We must carry out such tests; otherwise, we would irresponsibly sacrifice the human lives that could have been saved by the drugs.
Which of the following, if true, is the best objection that could be made from F's point of view to counter G's point?
(A) Even though it is not necessary for people to use cosmetics, cosmetics are also being tested on sentient animals.
(B) Medical science already has at its disposal a great number of drugs and other treatments for serious illnesses.
(C) It is not possible to obtain scientifically adequate results by testing drugs in the test tube, without making tests on living tissue.
(D) Some of the drugs to be tested would save human beings from great pain
(E) Many tests now performed on sentient animals can be performed equally well on fertilized chicken eggs that are at a very early stage of development.
5. The amount of time it takes for most of a worker's occupational knowledge and skills to become obsolete has been declining because of the introduction of advanced manufacturing technology (AMT). Given the rate at which AMT is currently being introduced in manufacturing, the average worker's old skills become obsolete and new skills are required within as little as five years.
Which of the following plans, if feasible, would allow a company to prepare most effectively for the rapid obsolescence of skills described above?
(A) The company will develop a program to offer selected employees the opportunity to receive training six years after they were originally hired.
(B) The company will increase its investment in AMT every year for a period of at least five years.
(C) The company will periodically survey its employees to determine how the introduction of AMT has affected them.
(D) Before the introduction of AMT, the company will institute an educational program to inform its employees
(E) The company will ensure that it can offer its employees any training necessary for meeting their job requirements.
This section also consists of a number of sentences, which are partially underlined. Each sentence is followed by five choices. The first choice (A) simply repeats the underlined part. The subsequent four choices suggest other ways to express the underlined part of the original sentence. Select one letter (from A through E) corresponding to the choice, which you consider the most correct and effective.
Grammar, sentence structure, word usage and punctuation are to be considered in your decisions, regardless of which choice you make the original meaning of the sentence must be retained.
6. The Black Hole in space has entered the popular imagination as an object too massive that neither light nor matter can escape its gravitational pull.
(A) too massive that neither light nor matter can escape its
(B) too massive for either allowing light or matter to escape its
(C) massive enough that either light or matter cannot escape their
(D) so massive that neither light nor matter could escape their
(E) so massive that neither light nor matter can escape its
7. As rare as something becomes, be it a musical recording, sports trivia or a postage stamp, the more avidly it is sought by collectors.
(A) As rare as something becomes, be it
(B) As rare as something becomes, whether it is
(C) As something becomes rarer and rarer, like
(D) The rarer something becomes, like as
(E) The rarer something becomes, be it
8. What adults think and feel is determined as much by their early childhood peers as by their parents.
(A) is determined as much by their early childhood peers as by their
(B) are determined as much by peers in early childhood as do their
(C) are determined as much by their peers in early childhood than by their
(D) have been determined by childhood peers as much as their
(E) was determined as much by one’s peers in childhood as by one’s
9. To reduce rather than eliminate, corruption would require tremendous commitment and effort.
(A) To reduce rather than eliminate,
(B) To reduce and eliminate,
(C) To reduce, let alone eliminate,
(D) To reduce, as opposed to eliminate,
(E) To reduce, as well as eliminate,
10. Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability to making profitable investments in Pakistan, have been led to move from passive involvement in commercial partnerships to active development of their own increasingly ambitious projects.
(A) Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability to making profitable investments in Pakistan, have been led
(B) Foreign investors, growing confident about their capability for making profitable investments in Pakistan, had led them
(C) Growing confidence in their ability to make profitable investment in Pakistan has led foreign investors
(D) Growing confidence in their ability for making profitable investments in Pakistan have led foreign investors
(E) Growing confident about their capabilities for making profitable investment in Pakistan, foreign investors had been led
11. My younger brother insists that he is as tall as me.
(A) that he is as tall as me.
(B) that he is so tall as me.
(C) that he is tall as me.
(D) that he is as tall as I.
(E) he is as much tall as me.
12. It is so dark that I cannot hardly see.
(A) I cannot hardly see.
(B) I can hardly see.
(C) I cannot hardly see.
(D) I cannot see hardly.
(E) I can see hardly.
Reading comprehension is also a part of this section.
Directions: The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question from the five choices marked (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in your test book. Then fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
All questions should be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
Passage 1
Since the nineteenth century when rigorous studies of poverty began, researchers have tried to establish a fixed yardstick against which to measure poverty. Ideally, such a yardstick would be applicable to all societies and should establish a fixed level, usually known as the poverty line, below which poverty begins and above which it ends. This concept of poverty is known as absolute poverty. It usually involves a judgment of basic human needs and is measured in terms of the resources required to maintain health and physical efficiency. Most measures of absolute poverty are concerned with establishing the quality and amount of food, clothing, and shelter deemed necessary for a healthy life.
Absolute poverty is often known as subsistence poverty since it is based on assessments of minimum
subsistence requirements. It is usually measured by pricing the basic necessities of life, drawing a poverty line in terms of this price, and defining those as poor whose income falls below that figure.
There have been many attempts to define and operationalise - put into a form, which can be measured - the concept of absolute poverty. For example Drewnowski and Scott in their “Level of Living Index,” define and operationalise basic physical needs in the following way: nutrition, measured by factors such as intake of calories and protein; shelter, measured by quality of dwelling and degree of overcrowding; and health, measured by factors such as the rate of infant mortality and the quality of available medical facilities.
Some concepts of poverty go beyond the notion of subsistence poverty by introducing the idea of “basic cultural needs.” This broadens the idea of basic human needs beyond the level of physical survival. Drewnowski and Scott include education, security, leisure and recreation in their category of basic cultural needs. The proportion of children enrolled at school is one indication of the level of educational provision; the number of violent deaths relative to the size of the population is one indication of security; and the amount of leisure relative to work time is one measure of the standard of leisure and recreation.
The concept of absolute poverty has been widely criticized. It is based on the assumption that there are minimum basic needs for all people, in all societies. This is a difficult argument to defend even in regard to subsistence poverty measured in terms of food, clothing and shelter. Such needs vary both between and within societies. Thus Peter Townsend argues, “It would be difficult to define nutritional needs without taking account of the kinds and demands of occupations and of leisure time pursuits in a society.” For example, the nutritional needs of the nomadic hunters and gatherers of the Kalahari Desert in Africa may well be very different from those of members of Western society. Within the same society, nutritional needs may vary widely, between, for example, the bank clerk sitting at his desk all day and the laborer on a building site. A similar criticism can be made of attempts to define absolute standards of shelter. Jack and Janet Roach give the following illustrations: “City living,” for example, requires that “adequate” shelter not only protects one from the elements, but that it does not present a fire hazard to others and that attention be paid to water supplies, sewage and garbage disposal. These problems are simply met in rural situations. Thus flush toilets, which may well be considered a necessary part of adequate shelter in the city, could hardly be considered essential fixtures in the dwellings of traditional hunting and gathering, and agricultural societies.
The concept of absolute poverty is even more difficult to defend when it is broadened to include the idea of “basic cultural need.” Such “needs” vary from time to time and place to place and any attempt to establish absolute, fixed standards is bound to fail. Drewnowski and Scotts basic cultural need of security is a case in point. Financial security for aged members of the working class in nineteenth-century England involved younger relatives providing for them, whereas, today it is largely met by state old age pensions and private insurance schemes. Increasing longevity, reductions in the size of families, and earlier retirement have altered the circumstances of the aged. Definitions of adequate provision for old age have changed since the last century. Thus, in terms of security, both the situation and expectations of the aged in England have changed and are not strictly comparable over time. A similar criticism can be applied to attempts to apply absolute standards to two or more societies. For instance, recreational and leisure provision in the West may be measured in terms of the number of televisions, cinemas, parks and playing fields per head of the population. However, the concept of leisure on which this is based and the items in terms of which it is measured may be largely irrelevant for other societies. For example, the Hopi and Zuni Indians of the Southwestern USA have an elaborate ceremonial life, which forms the central theme of their leisure activities.
Recreational needs are therefore largely determined by the culture of the particular society. Any absolute standard of cultural needs is based in part of the values of the researcher, which to some degree reflect his particular culture. Peter Townsend notes that when societies are compared in terms of recreational facilities, “Cinema attendance and ownership of radios take precedence over measures of direct participation in cultural events,” such as religious rituals and other ceremonies. This is a clear illustration of Western bias.
13. What is the writer’s main intention in the first paragraph?
(A) to compare absolute poverty with subsistence poverty
(B) to describe various interpretations of the poverty line
(C) to introduce various ways in which poverty can be measured
(D) to suggest a clear definition of poverty
(E) to introduce the concept of absolute poverty
14. The “Level of Living Index” described in paragraph 2
(A) contradicts the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
(B) questions the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
(C) establishes the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
(D) amplifies the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
(E) has no connection with the ideas expressed in paragraph 1.
15. What is the primary purpose of the 3rd paragraph?
(A) It serves as a summary of the preceding two paragraphs.
(B) It counter balances the existing discussion.
(C) It justifies the writer’s main contention.
(D) It extends the definitions introduced in the preceding two paragraphs.
(E) It negates the concepts introduced in the preceding two paragraphs.
16. According to the text, what is the main criticism leveled against the concept of absolute poverty?
(A) It is impossible to measure people’s basic needs.
(B) One cannot assume people share the same basic needs.
(C) One cannot formulate any comprehensive definition of absolute poverty.
(D) It is impossible to describe the needs of different societies.
(E) Absolute poverty should be avoided.
17. According to the writer, all the following have primarily contributed to the change in situation and expectations of the aged EXCEPT:
(A) Longer life expectancies
(B) Smaller family systems
(C) More recreational opportunities
(D) Earlier retirement age
(E) Financial security through pensions and insurance
SECTION: MATHEMATICS
Directions: While solving problems you can use any available space on the page for scratch work. For each question in this section, read the five choices marked (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in your test book. Select the letter of the choice, which you consider is the correct answer. Then fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: Figures that accompany problems are intended to provide information useful for solving the problems. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that it is not drawn to scale. All Figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
1. If each of four numbers is tripled, their average is multiplied by
(A) 12
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 9
(E) 81
2. Solve for y: 2x + y = 4
3x - 2y = -1
(A) y = 1
(B) y = 2
(C) y = 3
(D) y = 4
(E) y = 6
3. Solution X is 15% salt and the rest is water. Solution Y is 8% salt and the rest is water. How many litres of solution X need to be added to 5 litres of solution Y to make a solution that is 10% salt?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 4
(E) 2
4. A person purchased 5 tables for Rs 3,600 each and 7 tables for Rs 4,000 each. He then sold all the tables for Rs 64,400. What was the percentage profit he made on the total sum he paid for all the tables?
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 35%
(D) 45%
(E) 40%
5. A cyclist completed5 laps of a circular track in one hour. If his average speed was 20 miles per hour, what is the diameter of the track?
(A) 2π
(B) 4π
(C) 4/π
(D) 2/π
(E) π /4
6. The slope of the line 3y = 6x - 11 is
(A) 11/3
(B) -11/3
(C) -2
(D) 2
(E) 6
7. ABCD is a square
If the area of the triangle BDE is 8 what is the area of the square ABCD?
(A) 8
(B) 82
(C) 16
(D) 4
(E) 22
This section can also have the following type of questions:
Directions: While solving problems you can use any available space on the page for scratch work. For each question in this section, the two statements are labeled option 1 and option 2. Use the data given in option1 and option 2 to determine;
(A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
(B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
(C) Both statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement is sufficient alone.
(D) Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(E) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data is needed to answer the statements.
8. Rabia took a test where there were two types of questions, type I and type II. 2 points were awarded for getting a type I question correct. 5 points were awarded for getting a type II question correct, and there is no penalty for getting questions wrong. How many type I questions did she answer correctly?
(1) She answered 11 questions correctly.
(2) She was awarded 43 points.
9. n' is a natural number. State whether n (n² - 1) is divisible by 24.
(1) 3 divides 'n' completely without leaving any remainder.
(2) 'n' is odd.
10. Bags I, II and III together have ten balls. If each bag contains at least one ball, how many balls does each bag have?
(1) Bag I contains five balls more than box III.
(2) Bag II contains half as many balls as bag I.
11. Given that side AC of triangle ABC is 2. Find the length of BC.
(1) AB is not equal to AC
(2) Angle B is 30 degrees.
12. Does every bird fly?
(1) Lions can fly
(2) Hens can fly.
SECTION: ESSAY WRITING
Directions: Make sure your thoughts are logical and well presented in an organized manner. The essay should have grammatically and structurally correct. Correct usage of English language should be considered. The essay should not exceed the provided space. Essays that are illegible and deviate from the topic assigned will not be graded.
1. The following appeared in a memorandum from the Director of Marketing for a Pharmaceutical Company:
“According to a survey based on a sample of 5,000 urban residents, the prevalence of stress headaches increases with educational level thus implied that stress headaches occur most frequently among people with graduate-school degrees. It is well established that nationally, higher educational levels usually correspond with higher levels of income. Therefore, in marketing our new pain remedy, Pain-Relief, we should send free samples primarily to graduate students and to people with graduate degrees and we should concentrate on advertising in professional journals rather than in general interest magazines.”
Critically evaluate the logic presented in the above argument. Your analysis should be strongly supported by the context provided and should be well reasoned and plausibly presented. Make sure that your writing is legible. The focus of the topic should be kept in mind and deviations from main topic should be avoided.
2. “Scientists are continually redefining the standards for what is beneficial or harmful to the environment. Since these standards keep shifting, companies should resist changing their products and processes in response to each new recommendation until those recommendations become government regulations.”
Explain the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion presented above. You have to give substantial evidence for or against your argument while evaluating the issue. You may use your own experiences, observations and reading as evidence in this regard.
ANSWERS TO THE SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Section: English
1. A
2. B
3. E
4. E
5. E
6. E
7. E
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. E
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. C
Section: Mathematics
1. B
2. B
3. E
4. E
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. E
12. E
