Blew question MCQ are curated from Civil Procedure Code 1908 (CPC), by attempting these questions you will get detailed information about Civil Procedure Code (CPC). If you are preparing for CLAT, PCSJ, AIBE, LLM, LLB and any other law exam these questions will be the perfect solution for you.
Multiple Choice Questions of Code of Civil Procedure – (CPC) MCQ
1. The Code of Civil Procedure came into force with effect from____
- (a) 1 January 1908
- (b) 1 September 1908
- (c) 1 January 1909
- (d) 1 September 1909
2. The Code extends to the–
- (a) Whole of India
- (b) Whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
- (c) Whole of India except the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas (d) Both (b) and (c)
3. Among the following in which Section the term “decree” is defined–
- (a) Section 2(1)
- (b) Section 2(2)
- (c) Section 2(a)
- (d) Section 2(b)
4. Decree includes–
- (a) The rejection of a plaint
- (b) Any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order
- (c) Any order of dismissal for default.
- (d) None of the above
5. Decree includes–
- (a) Any order of dismissal for default
- (b) The rejection of a plaint
- (c) The determination of any question within section 144
- (d) Both (b) and (c) above
6. Order of dismissal for default is–
(a) Preliminary decree
(b) Final decree
(c) Partly preliminary partly final decree
(d) None of the above
7. Legal representative means/includes
(a) Person who is law represents the estate of a deceased person
(b) Any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased
(c) The person on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party
(d) All of the above
8. “Order” means the formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court which is not a decree–
(a) Section 2(2)
(b) Section 2(12)
(c) Section 2(14)
(d) Section 2(16)
9. The term ‘public officer’ means–
(a) Every officer in the service remunerated by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty.
(b) Every person who holds any office by virtue of which the is empowered to place or keep any person in confinement
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
10. Foreign judgment means the judgment of a foreign Court. The term foreign judgment is defined under Section–
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 13
11. Every______ is appealable–
(a) Decree
(b) Order
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
12. Cause of action may be described as–
(a) A bundle of essential facts necessary for the plaintiff to prove
(b) An important subject of litigation
(c) A point in question
(d) All of the above
13. Which one of the following court has original as well as appellate jurisdiction–
(a) Revenue Court
(b) District Court
(c) Munsiffs Court
(d) None of the above
14. No Suit would lie to set aside a decree on objection as to–
(a) Subject matter jurisdiction of a court
(b) Territorial jurisdiction of a court
(c) Pecuniary jurisdiction of a court
(d) Both (b) and (c) above
15. A defendant to a suit against whom no relief is claimed is called
(a) Co defendant
(b) Pro-forma defendant
(c) Interveners
(d) None of the above
16. Section 9 of the Code confers jurisdiction in–
(a) Civil matter
(b) Political matter
(c) Religion matter
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
17. Among the following which are suits of a Civil nature–
(a) Suit relating to rights to worship
(b) Suit relating to right to shares in offerings
(c) Suits for upholding mere dignity or honour
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
18. Among the following which are suits of civil nature–
(a) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings
(b) Suits involving principally caste questions
(c) Suits relating to taking out of religious processions
(d) None of the above
19. A Civil Court has jurisdiction to try a civil suit unless its cognizance is barred–
(a) Expressly
(b) Impliedly
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Only (a) not (b)
20. Mark the incorrect statement______
(a) A statute ousting jurisdiction of a Court must be strictly construed
(b) Every Court has inherent power to decide the question of its own jurisdiction
(c) Consent can neither confer nor take away jurisdiction of a Court
(d) None of the above
21. Mark the Correct statement–
(a) There is no distinction between want of jurisdiction and irregular exercise thereof.
(b) Every presumption should be made in favour of jurisdiction of a Civil Court
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
22. Jurisdiction of a Court depends upon the___
(a) Averments made in a plaint
(b) Defence in the written statement
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
23. Doctrine of res sub judice is provided under Section–
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
24. Section 10 of the Code deals with–
(a) Stay of civil suits
(b) Puts a bar upon the institution of a civil suits
(c) (A) and (b) both above
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
25. Which of the following is based upon equity–
(a) Res judicata
(b) Res subjudice
(c) Estoppels
(d) None of the above
26. The Code of Civil Procedure was enacted on-
(a) 21/03/1908
(b) 21/06/1908
(c) 31/12/1908
(d) 21/09/1909
27. Among the following______ conclusively determines the rights of the parties–
(a) Decree
(b) Order
(c) Judgment
(d) Application
28. A statement given by Judge on the ground of decree or order is called___
(a) Plain
(b) Written statement
(c) Judgment
(d) Summons
29. The term ‘Resjudicata’ means–
(a) Stay of proceeding
(b) Further proceeding
(c) A matter already adjudicated
(d) None of the above
30. Which of the following amendments was introduced by the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts 1999 and 2002–
(a) Number of adjournments has been restricted
(b) Provision for out of Court settlement has been introduced (c) Scope of appeals curtailed
(d) All of the above
31. A decree becomes final–
(a) When no appeal has been preferred against the decree
(b) When it conclusively determines the right of the parties
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
32. A decree, when an adjudication completely disposes of the suit, is–
(a) A preliminary decree
(b) A final decree
(c) Partly preliminary and partly final decree
(d) None of the above
33. An order rejecting the plaint for non-payment of the court fees is–
(a) Decree
(b) Not a decree
(c) Judgment
(d) None of the above
34. An exparte decree can be set aside on the ground that–
(a) An exparte decree cannot be set aside under any circumstances
(b) Summons were not duly served
(c) Defendant refused to receive the summons and thereafter no fresh summons were issued to him
(d) Non-appearance of defendant as copies of documents filed with plaint were not provided to defendant
35. If a plaint is rejected for non-payment of Court fee, the remedy is
(a) Appeal
(b) Writ
(c) Revision
(d) None of the above
36. Among the following which section put a bar to further suit–
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 16
37. A foreign judgment not pronounced by Court of competent jurisdiction will–
(a) Be not conclusive
(b) Be conclusive
(c) Based upon fraud
(d) None of the above
38. According to section 21 of the Code, objection at jurisdiction of Court can be raised on–
(a) Trial
(b) Appeal
(c) Revision
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
39. Suits for the recovery of movable property actually under distraint or attachment shall be instituted in the Court within the local limit of whose jurisdiction the–
(a) Defendant is resides
(b) The plaintiff is resides
(c) Property is situate
(d) Any of the above
40. Section 18 of the Code provides for–
(a) Place of institution of suits in respect of immovable property where the local limits of jurisdiction of Courts are uncertain
(b) Place of institution of suit in respect of immovable property where the property is situated in the jurisdiction of one Court
(c) Place of institution of suit in respect of immovable property where the property is situated in the jurisdiction of different courts
(d) None of the above
41. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999 as well as the Amendment Act, 2002 were held constitutionally valid in the case of–
(a) State of Punjab v. Sivaram
(b) State of U.P. v. Chandra Bhushan
(c) Anil Rai v. State of Bihar
(d) Salem Advocate Bar Association v. UOI
42. Which of the following sections of the Code defines “suit”_____
(a) Section 2
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 2(9)
(d) Not defined
43. The words ‘rights’ in the definition of decree as given under Section 2(2) of the Code, means–
(a) Substantive rights
(b) Procedural rights
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
44. Once a Preliminary decree is passed in a suit
(a) The suit will comes to an end
(b) The suit will continue
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above
45. A judgment contemplates a stage___ the passing of a decree–
(a) Simultaneous
(b) Prior to
(c) After
(d) Any of the above
46. Mesne profit_______ include profits due to improvements made by the person is wrongful possession of property______
(a) Shall not
(b) Shall
(c) May
(d) May not
47. Mesne profit can be claimed with respect to
(a) Immovable property only
(b) Movable property only
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
48. The interest on mesne profit shall not exceed______ per annum–
(a) 10%
(b) 6%
(c) 4%
(d) 1%
49. The official request that a Court should not take a particular action without issuing notice to the applicant party is called–
(a) Stay of suit
(b) Injunction
(c) Caveat
(d) Letter of request
50. The jurisdiction of the Civil Court is based on–
(a) Pecuniary jurisdiction
(b) Territorial jurisdiction
(c) Subject matter jurisdiction
(d) All of the above
51. A written statement–
(a) May contain new facts in favour of defendant
(b) May contain legal objections to the claim of the plaintiff
(c) Must be confined to the reply of the plaint
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
52. Provision regarding Res subjudice are–
(a) Mandatory
(b) Discretionary
(c) Not Mandatory
(d) Directory
53. Which of the following sections of the Code is intended to prevent two parallel proceedings in respect of same cause of action–
(a) Section 13
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 10
(d) Section 9
54. A decree may be executed by
(a) Court which passed it
(b) Court to which sent for execution
(c) Appellate Court
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
55. Among the following who cannot be arrested during execution of money decree–
(a) Women
(b) Any person
(c) Partner
(d) None of the above
56. Under the Code the provision of notice before instituting a suit against the Government is given in–
(a) Section 82
(b) Section 80
(c) Section 79
(d) Section 78
57. Inherent powers of the Court can be exercised under the Code–
(a) To help the plaintiff
(b) To help the defendant
(c) For the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court
(d) To grant interim relief
58. A residing in Dehradun, beats B in Delhi. B may sue A under the Code–
(a) Delhi
(b) Dehradun
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Only (a) not (b)
59. A person may sue a foreign State–
(a) Only with the consent of the Central Government
(b) With the consent of the President of India
(c) With the consent of the State Government
(d) Both (a) and (c) above
60. Objection as to place of suing shall be allowed in the Court of first instance is the essence of–
(a) Section 22
(b) Section 21A
(c) Section 21
(d) Section 20
61. Where it appears to the Court that there exist element of a settlement the Court shall
(a) Leave the matter undecided
(b) Decide the matter itself
(c) Refer the same for arbitration, conciliation or mediation
(d) None of the above
62. A decree for execution cannot be sent to a–
(a) Foreign Court
(b) Court outside India established by the authority of Central Government
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
63. Which of the following must be stated in the pleadings–
(a) Facta Probanda
(b) Facta Probantia
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
64. Agreement between the parties to institute the suit relating to disputes in a particular Court–
(a) Does not oust the jurisdiction of other Courts
(b) May operate-as estoppels between the parties
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
65. The Doctrine of res judicata applies to–
(a) Changing circumstances
(b) Static situations
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
66. A judgment delivered by a Foreign Court of competent jurisdiction can be enforced by an Indian Court and will operate as res judicata between the parties thereto except in the cases mentioned–
(a) Section 14
(b) Section 13
(c) Section 12
(d) Section 11
67. An order allowing or disallowing an application for amendment is–
(a) Appealable
(b) A decree
(c) An appealable order
(d) None of the above
68. The defendant against whom an exparte decree has been passed can prefer an appeal under
(a) Order 9 Rule 13
(b) Order 47 Rule 1
(c) Section 96(2)
(d) None of the above
69. Where the relief claimed by the plaintiff is undervalued and the valuation is not corrected within the time fixed or extended by the Court–
(a) The plaint may be rejected
(b) The plaint will be rejected
(c) The plaint will be returned
(d) Either (a) or (c)
70. Which of the following does not deals with final determination of contested questions and have the binding effect in future litigation
(a) Res subjudice
(b) Res Judicata
(c) Stare decisis
(d) Both (a) and (b)
71. Among the following cases in which the test of res judicata between codefendants has been laid down by the Supreme Court–
(a) Sobhag Singh v. Jai Singh
(b) Jai Narain v. Kedar Nath
(c) Mahboob Shab v. Syed Ismail
(d) Sheodan Singh v. Daryao Kanwar
72. Which of the following operate as res judicata–
(a) A withdrawal of suit
(b) An exparte decree
(c) A compromise decree
(d) None of the above
73. The provisions relating to abatement do not apply to–
(a) Appeals
(b) Execution proceedings
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
74. Interrogatories shall be answered by affidavit to be filed within_____ after the service of it–
(a) 30 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 7 days
75. Section 34 of the Code does not deal with–
(a) Interest from the date of decree
(b) Interest prior to suit
(c) Interest pendent lite
(d) None of the above
76. After rejection of plaint, whether the plaintiff can institute fresh suit on the same cause of action–
(a) Can institute another suit
(b) Can institute another suit with the permission of the High Court (c) Cannot institute another suit
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
77. At the first hearing of the suit, the Court must–
(a) Frame and record the issues
(b) Ascertain upon what material propositions of fact or of law the parties are at variance
(c) Record the evidence
(d) None of the above
78. The Court may frame the issues from–
(a) Allegations made on oath by the parties, or by any persons present on their behalf, or made by the pleaders of such parties
(b) Allegations made in the pleadings or in answers to interrogatories delivered in the suit
(c) The contents of documents produced by either party
(d) All of the above
79. Under order 7 Rule 11 of the Code. The plaint shall not be rejected–
(a) Where it is not filed in duplicate
(b) Where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
(c) Where the plaintiff fails to comply with the provision of Rule 9
(d) Where it discloses cause of action
80. Application under Order 9 Rule 7 of the Code to set aside the order of ex-parte proceeding may be filed–
(a) At or before the date of fixed for hearing
(b) Within 90 days
(c) Within 45 days
(d) Within 30 days
81. Which section of the Code prove enforcement of decree against legal representative–
(a) Section 51
(b) Section 52
(c) Section 56
(d) Section 58
82. Among the following in which section property liable to attachment and sale in execution of decree is provided–
(a) Section 60
(b) Section 62
(c) Section 63
(d) Section 65
83. A judgment debtor has been arrested, may not release among the following ground–
(a) Suffering from any serious illness
(b) Suffering from any infectious or contagious disease
(c) He is not in a fit state of health to be detained in the civil prison
(d) None of the above
84. Among the following properties, which shall not be liable for attachment under the Code–
(a) Government securities
(b) Bank notes
(c) A mere right to sue for damages
(d) All of the above
85. Among the following which section deals with the proceeds of execution-sale to be rateably distributed among decree-holders–
(a) Section 60
(b) Section 67
(c) Section 73
(d) Section 75
86. Section which deals with the interpleader suit–
(a) 38
(b) 79
(c) 84
(d) 88
87. A decree is passed against the Union of India or a State, execution shall not be issued on any such decree unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of–
(a) Two months
(b) Three months
(c) One months
(d) Six months
88. No order for detention of the judgment debtor in civil prison in execution of a decree for the payment of money shall be made, where the total amount of the decree not exceed–
(a) One Thousand
(b) Two Thousand
(c) Five Thousand
(d) Ten Thousand
89. In which of the following cases, the Court may not issue a commission–
(a) To examine any person
(b) To make a partition
(c) To hold a scientific, technical or expert investigation
(d) For execution of a decree
90. Under which of the following circumstances, review of judgment may not lie–
(a) Appeal dismissed
(b) By a decision on a reference from a Court a small causes
(c) By a decree or order from which an appeal is allowed by this code, but from which no appeal has been preferred
(d) By a decree or order from which no appeal is allowed by this code
91. Appellant Court shall not have power–
(a) To remand a case
(b) To determine a case finally
(c) To take additional evidence
(d) None of the above
92. Where an appeal from any order is allowed and such order is made by a Court in the exercise of appellate jurisdiction, than appeal shall lie to–
(a) The Court to which an appeal would lie from the decree in the suit in which such order was made
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) District Court
93. The Limitation Act contains (a)32 Sections
(b) 137Articles
(c) 30 sections
(d) both (a) & (b) are correct 94. The expression ‘time requisite’ used in section 12(2) of the Limitation Act, 1963 means
a) Maximum time
b) Actual time taken
c) Minimum time taken
d) None of the above
95. Section 15 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies to
a) Execution proceedings only
b) Suits only
c) Appeals only
d) Both (a) and (b)
96. The law of limitation is
a) Substantive law
b) Procedural law
c) None of these
d) Both Substantive & Procedural law
97. The doctrine which place emphasis on the plaintiff’s duty to exhaust all available grounds in support of his claim–
(a) Estoppels
(b) Res judicata
(c) Principle underlying Order 2 Rule 2 (splitting of claim)
(d) None of the above
98. Remedy available against rejection of plaint is–
(a) Plaintiff may prefer an appeal
(b) Plaintiff may present a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above
99. A claim by way of____ may be allowed even if it is time barred when there is a fiduciary relationship between the parties–
(a) An equitable set-off
(b) A legal set off
(c) A counter claim
(d) All of the above
100. A suit filed on behalf of a minor
(a) Cannot be withdrawn
(b) Can be withdrawn as a matter of right
(c) Can be withdrawn only with the leave of the Court
(d) None of the above
Answer Keys
1. (c) 1 January 1909
2. (b) Whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
3. (b) Section 2(2)
4. (a) The rejection of a plaint
5. (d) Both (b) and (c) above
6. (d) None of the above
7. (d) All of the above
8. (c) Section 2(14)
9. (c) Both (a) and (b) above
10. (a) 2
11. (a) Decree
12. (a) A bundle of essential facts necessary for the plaintiff to prove
13. (b) District Court
14. (d) Both (b) and (c) above
15. (b) Pro-forma defendant
16. (a) Civil matter
17. (d) Both (a) and (b) above
18. (c) Suits relating to taking out of religious processions
19. (c) Either (a) or (b)
20. (d) None of the above
21. (b) Every presumption should be made in favour of jurisdiction of a Civil Court
22. (a) Averments made in a plaint
23. (b) 10
24. (a) Stay of civil suits
25. (c) Estoppels
26. (a) 21/03/1908
27. (a) Decree
28. (c) Judgment
29. (c) A matter already adjudicated
30. (d) All of the above
31. (c) Both (a) and (b) above
32. (b) A final decree
33. (a) Decree
34. (b) Summons were not duly served
35. (a) Appeal
36. (b) Section 12
37. (a) Be not conclusive
38. (a) Trial
39. (c) Property is situate
40. (a) Place of institution of suits in respect of immovable property where the local limits of jurisdiction of Courts are uncertain
41. (d) Salem Advocate Bar Association v. UOI
42. (d) Not defined
43. (a) Substantive rights
44. (b) The suit will continue
45. (b) Prior to
46. (a) Shall not
47. (a) Immovable property only
48. (b) 6%
49. (c) Caveat
50. (d) All of the above
51. (d) Both (a) and (b) above
52. (a) Mandatory
53. (c) Section 10
54. (d) Both (a) and (b) above
55. (a) Women
56. (b) Section 80
57. (c) For the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court
58. (c) Either (a) or (b)
59. (a) Only with the consent of the Central Government
60. (c) Section 21
61. (c) Refer the same for arbitration, conciliation or mediation
62. (a) Foreign Court
63. (a) Facta Probanda
64. (c) Both (a) and (b) above
65. (b) Static situations
66. (b) Section 13
67. (d) None of the above
68. (c) Section 96(2)
69. (b) The plaint will be rejected
70. (a) Res subjudice
71. (c) Mahboob Shab v. Syed Ismail
72. (b) An exparte decree
73. (b) Execution proceedings
74. (c) 10 days
75. (b) Interest prior to suit
76. (a) Can institute another suit
77. (b) Ascertain upon what material propositions of fact or of law the parties are at variance
78. (d) All of the above
79. (d) Where it discloses cause of action
80. (a) At or before the date of fixed for hearing
81. (b) Section 52
82. (a) Section 60
83. (d) None of the above
84. (c) A mere right to sue for damages
85. (c) Section 73
86. (d) 88
87. (b) Three months
88. (b) Two Thousand
89. (d) For execution of a decree
90. (a) Appeal dismissed
91. (d) None of the above
92. (b) High Court
93. (d) both (a) & (b) are correct
94. (b) Actual time taken
95. d) Both (a) and (b)
96. b) Procedural law
97. (c) Principle underlying Order 2 Rule 2 (splitting of claim)
98. (c) Either (a) or (b)
99. (a) An equitable set-off
100. (c) Can be withdrawn only with the leave of the Court
