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NEET 2017 Zoology Top 100 Questions for Practice


1) In poultry the disease coryza is caused by
1) Bacteria
2) Protozoan
3) Virus
4) Fungi

2) The chromosome complement of honey bees developed parthenoge netically from unfertilized eggs is
1) Haploid
2) Diploid
3) Triploid
4) Polyploid

3) Separation of sick and non-productive birds from healthy and productive birds is known as
1) De worming
2) Culling
3) Dubbing
4) Cannibalism

4) Western Blot test is done for the confirmation of
1) Malaria
2) Filaria
3) Anaemia
4) AIDS

5) The Mediterranean type of popular fowls are called
1) While Leghorn
2) New Hampshire
3) Plymouth Rock
4) Rhode Island Red

6) The progenitors that are formed in bone marrow and differentiated else where are
1) Pre-NK cell
2) Pre-Erythroblast
3) Pre-T cell
4) Mycloblast

7) X-rays are used in
1) ECG
2) EEG
3) CT-scan
4) Endoscopy

8) An example of liquid tumor is
1) Glioblastoma
2) Adenocarcinoma
3) Chondrosarcoma
4) Myelocytic leukemia

9) When a cow is crossed to a bull and the female progeny is yielding more milk than its mother, from, this it is inferred that
1) More number of genes for high yielding milk are inherited, only from the female parent
2) More number of genes for high yielding milk are inherited, only from the male parent
3) More number of genes for high yielding milk are inherited, from both the parent
4) The progeny through mutation achieved more number of genes for high yielding milk

10) Crossing of unrelated pure breeding animals of different traits within the same breed is called
1) Cross breeding
2) Out crossing
3) Close breeding
4) Species hybridization

11) The application of polymerase chain reaction is
1) To demonstrate DNA as genetic material
2) To replicate specific DNA sequences at high temperatures
3) To determine minerals in biological tissue
4) To replicate RNA sequences at low temperature

12) The ‘P’ wave in an EGG indicates
1) Atrial Depolarization
2) Rapid venticular Depolarization
3) Absolute Refractory period
4) Repolarization of the ventricles

13) One of the following shows arrhe no toky in its development
1) Fumea
2) Drosophila melanogaster
3) Apis mellifera
4) Bonellia viridis

14) Identify the tumor suppressor genes from the following
1) Oncogenes
2) p53 gene
3) Pseudogenes
4) 5 RYgene

15) In ECG prolonged PR interval indicates
1) Hyperkalemia and hypokalemia
2) Myocardial ischemia andhyperkalemia
3) Cardiac arthythmia and hypokale mia
4) Coronary artery disease and rheumatic fever

16) Wax glands in honey bees are present on these segments
1) 1, 2, 3 and 4 abdominal segments of queens
2) 2, 3 and 4 abdominal segments of queens
3) 2, 3, 4and 5 abdominal segmen ts of workers
4) 1, 2 and 3 abdominal segments of workers

17) Statement (S): The phenomenon where tumor cells detach and migrate to other parts of the body where they give rise to secondary tumors is called metastasis.
Reason (R): Abnormal antigens on the surface of cell and unusual number of chromosomes cause
metastasis.
1) Both S and R are true and R is the correct explanation of S.
2) Both S and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of S.
3) S is true, R is false
4) Both S and R are wrong

18) Match the following :
      List-I                                            List-II
A) Sandwich ELISA          I) Three dimensional image
B) QRS complex‘              II) Substrate linked antibody
C) AUograft                    III) Ventricular depolarisation
D) CT Scan                     IV) Transplantation between non-identical individuals
The correct match is
1) II III IV I
2) II IV III I
3) I II IV III
4) II III IV I

19) Study the following
A) The cells of malignant tumors divide erratically
B) They are malignant tumors ofep ithelial cell
C) They are malignant tumors of org ans that originate from mesoderm
D) These tumors are seen in the organs such as spleen and lymph nodes.
Which of the above are true for angiosarcoma?
1) A and B
2) B and D
3) A and C
4) B and C

20) Match the following :
         List-I                                            List-II
A) Cancer cells                               I) DNA replication
B) Transcriptional factors             II) Saccharomyces
C) Cyclins                                     III) Telomerase
D) Zygote                                      IV) Totipotent cells
The correct match is
1) III I II IV
2) IV III II I
3) III IV II I
4) II I III IV




21) Match the following :
            List-I                                               List-II
A) Conjugate vaccine                             I) Human papilloma virus
B) Toxoid vaccines                                II) Haemophilus influenza
C) Attenuated whole agent vaccine     III) Bubonic plague
D) Inactivated whole agent vaccine    IV) Yellow fever
                                                               V) Diphtheria
The correct match is
1) I IV V II
2) II‘ V IV III
3) I II III V
4) II III I IV

22) The main cause for the depletion of ozone in the atmosphere is
1) NO3
2) CFC
3) CO2
4) CO

23) Which part of the world has high density of organisms
1) Deciduous forests
2) Grosslands
3) Tropical rain forests
4) Savannahs

24) In lake the upper warmer oxygen rich circulating water layer zone is referred to as -----
1) Limnetic Zone
2) Epilimnion
3) Profundal Zone
4) Hy Polimnion

25) The sphere of living matter together with water air and soil as the surface the earth is called
1) Atmosphere
2) Hydrosphere
3) Lithosphere
4) Biosphere

26) Match the following columns and choose the correct combination from the given option
      Column I                   Column II
Population interaction Examples
A) Mutualism              1) Ticks on dogs
B) Commensalism       2) Balanus and chathamalus
C) Parasitism              3) Sparrow and any seed
D) competition            4) Epiphyte on a mango branch
E) Predation                5) Orchid, Ophrys and bee
The correct match is
A B C D E
1) 1 5 4 3 2
2) 2 1 5 4 3
3) 3 2 1 5 4
4) 5 4 1 2 3

27) An Interaction favourable to both population but no obligatory to either is
1) Proto-Cooperation
2) mutualism
3) Commensalism
4) Parasite

28) Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example for
1) Mutualism
2) Commensalism
3) Parasitism
4) Amensalism

29) The association of animals when both partners are benefited is
1) Commensalism
2) Amensalism
3) Mutualism
4) Parasism

30) Find odd one out, according to parasitism
1) Lice
2) Plasmodium
3) Bed bug
4) Mite

31) In commensalism
1) Both partners are harmed
2) Weaker partner is benefited
3) Both partners are benefited
4) None of the partner is benefited

32) In the lake ecosystem Dineutes is found as
1) Epineuston
2) Hyponeuston
3) Zooplankion
4) Nekton

33) Dytiscus, the diving beetle is a
1) Epineuston
2) Hyponeuston
3)Nekton
4) Zooplankton

34) Which one of the following animals occur more than one tropic levels in the same Ecosystem at the same time?
1) Sparrow
2) Lion
3) Goat
4) Frog

35) Symbiotic fixation of nitrogen in the root nodules of legumes is due to ---
1) Clostridium
2) Rhizobium
3) Thiobacillus
4) Nitrobacter

36) Make a matching of list-I with List-II
    List-I      List-II
A) Nitrosomonas  1) Symbiotic
N2 fixation
B) Nitrobacter  2) Denitrification
C) Pseudomonas  3) Conversion of
nitrites to nitrates
D) Rhizobium 4) Conversion of Ammonia to nitrites
1) 2 3 4 1
2) 2 4 3 1
3) 4 3 2 1
4) 4 2 3 1

37) Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, where as the remaining three are correct ?
1) It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
2) It is inverted in shape
3) It is upright in shape
4) Its base is broad

38) Which of the following statements regarding food chain is false
1) In an aquatic ecosystem, grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow
2) In terrestrial ecosystem a large fraction of energy flows through detritous food chain
3) The detritous food chain begins with dead organic matter
4) Primary consumers belong to the first trophic level
5) Animals like cockroaches and crows are omnivores

39) In a grazing food chain carnivores may also referred to as
1) Primary producers
2) Secondary producers
3) Primary consumers
4) Secondary consumers

40) Which of the following pyramid is always upright and can never be inverted?
1)Pyramid of biomass
2) Pyramid of numbers
3) pyramid of energy
4) Both 1 & 3

41) Energy flow in an ecosystem is
1) bidirectional
2) unidirectional
3) all around
4) None of these

42) Primary consumers are
1) Carnivores
2) Herbivores
3) decomposers
4) Omnivores

43) Study the four statements given below and select the two correct ones out of them
1) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers
2) Predator star fish pisaster helps in maintaines species diversity of some invertebrates
3) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
4) production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plant are the metabolic disorders
1) ii & iii
b) iii & iv
c) i & iv
d) i & ii

44) The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and decomposers is called
1) net primary productivity
2) secondary productivity
3) standing crop
4) gross primary productivity

45) Energy enters the ecosystem through
1) herbivore
2) carnivore
3) producer
4) decomposer

46) Maximum net productivity in the terrestrial ecosystem is in
1) rain forest
2) deciduous forest
3) mangrove plantation
4) both 1&2




47) Which one is a sedimentary cycle?
1) Carbon cycle
2) Oxygen cycle
3) Nitrogen cycle
4) Sulphur cycle

48) Biogeochemical cycles are also known as
1) Sedimentary cycling
2) gaseous cycle
3) material cycling
4) cycles of water

49) Sedimentary cycle having a small gaseous component is found in
1) Phosphorus
2) nitrogen
3) carbon
4) sulphur

50) Which of the following organisms can fix nitrogen
1) Plants
2) Fish
3) Fungi
4) Bacteria

51) The largest reservoir of phosphorus in the biosphere is the
1) atmosphere
2) ocean
3) organisms
4) rock

52) Phosphorus cycle in the form of
1) HPO3
2) P2 (a gas)
3) PO3
4 4) AIPO4

53) The phospores cycle is unusal in that it is entirely
1) within the aquatic ecosystem
2) within the terrestrial ecosystem
3) sedimentary
4) gaseous

54) Which of the following atoms typically cycles with in the most localized area?
1) Carbon
2) Water
3) Nitrogen
4) Phosphours

55) The change in population size at a given time interval, is given by the expression
N1 = N0 + (B + I) ( D + E). I, B and D stands respectively for
1) rate of immigration, morality rate, natality rate
2) rate of immigration, natality rate, mortality rate
3) mortality, natality and rate of emigration
4) Natality, mortality and rate of immigration

56) In a population with logistic growth, the population size is stabilized after-----
1) Lag phase
2) Acceleration phase
3) Decleration (negative acceleration) phase
4) Carrying capacity

57) Carring capacity is determined by 
1) Limiting resources
2) Mortality rate
3) Natality rate
4) Predation

58) The growth of a population without limit at its maximal rate and also that, rates of immigration and emigration are equal. Then it is called
1) Carrying capacity
2) Biotic potential
3) Positive growth
4) Negative growth

59) Increase in number of individual s in a population represents
a) Natality
2) Mortality
3) Density
4) Diversity

60) Population dynamics is related to
1) Increase in population
2) Decrease in population
3) Change in population
4) All the above

61) Proportion of young individuals is highest in case of
1) Declining population
2) Stable population
3) Both A and B
4) Increasing population

62) Rapid decline in the population due to high mortality rate is called
1) Population density
2) Population crash
3) Population explosion
4) all of these

63) Changing population is
1) Population growth
2) Population dynamics
3) Population explosion
4) Population ethology

64) Depletion of atmospheric ozone is mainly due to
1) SO2
2) CH3
3) CFC
4) NO3

65) When a man inhales air containing normal concentration of O2 as well as CO2 but he suffers from suffocation because
1) CO reacts with O2 reducing its percentage inair
2) Haemoglobin combines with CO instead of O2 and forms carbxy haemoglobin 
3) CO effects diaphragm and intercostals muscles 
4) CO affects the nerves of the lungs

66) Assertion (A) :- Chloroflurocarbo ns are responsible for the ozone depletion
Reason (R):- Ozone level decrease by as much as 67% every year
1) Both A& R are true and R explains A
2) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

67) Assertion (A):- Suspended particulate matter is an important pollutant released by diesel vehicles
Reason (R):- Catalytic converts greatly reduce pollution caused by automobiles
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A
2) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

68) Shifting cultivation requires
1) Alternate crop pattern in a particular area
2) Huge amounts of commercial fertilizer
3) Excessive soil erosion for crop production
4) Long time for the regulation of soil

69) Positive pollution of soil is due to
1) Excessive use of fertilizers
2) Reduction in soil productivity
3) Addition of wastes to soil
4) All of these

70) A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
1) Drying of lake very soon due to algal bloom
2) Increased production fish due too lot of nutrients
3) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen
4) Increased population of aquatic food web organisms

71) Pollution from animal excreta and organic wastes from kitchen can be most profitably minimized by
1) Storing them in underground storage tanks
2) Using them to produce biogas
3) vermiculture
4) Using them directly as biofertilizers

72) The Montreal protocol refers to
1) Perisistent organic pollutants
2) Global warming & climate changes
3) Substances that deplete the ozone layer
4) Biosafety of genetically modified organism




73) The phosphorus cycle is unusal in that it is entirely
1) Within aquatic systems
2) Within terrestrial ecosystem
c) Sedimentary
4) Gaseous

74) Which one of the following statements for pyramid three are correct?
1) It show energy content of different trophic level of organisms
2) It is inverted in shape
3) It is upright in shape
4) It s base is broad

75) Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of ‘Green house effect’
1) CO2 and CO
2) CFCs and SO2
3) CO2 and N2O
4) CO2 and O3

76) Eutrophication is often seen in
1) Fresh water lakes
2) Ocean
3) Mountains
4) Deserts

77) Acid rain is due to
1) CO2 and H2O
2) CO and NO2
3) SO2 and NO2
4) SO2 and N2O

78) Term used for accumulation of non-degradable pollutant in higher trophic level is
1) Biomagnification
2) Biome
3) Eutrophication
4) Ecotone

79) Match the items of column-I with column-II and choose the correct answer
   List-I     List-II
A) Electrostatic precipitator  1) Remove gases like SO2
B) Scrubber 2) Reduces
automobile
emission
C) Catalytic converter 3) Removes particulate
matter
1) 2 3 1
2) 3 2 1
3) 3 1 2
4) 1 3 2

80) Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that produce
1) Carbon monoxide
2) Fluorides
3) Sulphur dioxide
4) Ozone

81) Which one of the following is the correct percentage of two (out of the total of four ) greenhouse gases that contribute to the global warming?
1) CFCs 14%, CH4 20%
2) CO2 40%, CFCs 30%
3) N2O 6%, CO2 86%
4) CH4 20% , N2O 18%

82) In a coal fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission
1) SO2
2) NOx
3) SPM
4) CO

83) Assertion (A):- Inhabitants close to very busy airports are likely to experience health hazards
Reason(R):- Sound level of jet aeroplances usually exceeds 160 dB
1) Both A&R are true and R explains A
2) Both A &R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

84) Assertion (A) :- Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from the developing countries such as India 
Reason(R):- No value is attached to those forests because these are poor in biodiversity
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A
2) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

85) Assertion(A):- Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) is an important pollutant released by disel vehicles
Reason(R):- Catalytic converters gre atly reduce pollution caused by automobiles
1) BothA&R are true and R explains A
2) Both A &R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

86) Assertion(A):- Presently, the global atmosphere is warming up
Reason(R):-The depletion of stratos pheric ozone layer has resulted in increase in the ultraviolet radiations  reaching the earth
1) Both A&R are true and R explains A
2) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

87) Global warming can be controlled by:
1) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel
2) Increasing deforestation, showing
down the growth of human population
3) Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage
4) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel.

88) A: Biomagnification of DDT can enhance the decline in bird population.
R: DDT causes thinning of egg shell and their premature breaking by disturbing calcium metabolism.
1) Both A R are true and R explains A
2) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true R is false
4) A is false R is true

89) A: Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta.
R: It is a practical and hygienic method of using dry composing toilets.
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A
2) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true R is false
4) A is false R is true

90) A: EI Nino is a climatic change which causes deleterious environmental changes.
R: Increased trophospheric ozone due to E1 Nino cause shift of climatic regions.
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A
2) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true R is false
4) A is false R is true
NEET 2017 Zoology Top 100 Questions for Practice




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NEET 2017 Zoology Top 100 Questions for Practice

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